Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
09.06.2025 18:43
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Autism and ADHD have distinct brain connectivity signatures, study finds - Medical Xpress
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
There's no rule.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
What does it mean when a British person says "I can't be asked"?
You'll usually find your answer there.